Model Question Paper - Draftsman, Overseer - Civil

Model Question Paper - Draftsman/Overseer - Civil (PWD)

1. The height of chimney should not be more than _____ times of the external diameter at the base

(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 12

2. A rail which is fixed between the top rail and lock rail is known as

(a) Frieze rail
(b) Jack rail
(c) Heart rail
(d) Middle rail

3. The passage for carrying smoke or hot air is termed as

(a) Stack
(b) Flue
(c) Fireplace
(d) Hearth

4. The dimension of half queen closer

(a) 9.5cm x 9cm x 9cm
(b) 19cm x 4.5cm x 9cm
(c) 9.5cm x 4.5cm x 9cm
(d) 19cm x 4.5cm x 4.5cm

5. The weight of 1m3 good brick earth is about

(a) 1800 kg
(b) 1440 kg
(c) 1500 kg
(d) 2480 kg

6. The slope of the roof opposite side of the wind direction is known as

(a) Windward
(b) Gabble
(c) Leeward
(d) Hounch

7. The projecting part of the tread beyond the face of riser is known as

(a) Scotia
(b) Nosing
(c) Soffit
(d) Winder

8. A stair turning through one right angle is known as

(a) Helical stair
(b) Dog legged stair
(c) half turn stair
(d) Quarter turn stair

9. A pitched roof in which rafters slope to one side only is called

(a) Lean-to roof
(b) Pent roof
(c) Aisle roof
(d) All the above

10. The term used to indicate deformation of the structure in a vertical plane is called

(a) Settlement
(b) Angular distortion
(c) Angular displacement
(d) Angular settlement

11. The chainman at the rear end of the chain is called

(a) Leader
(b) Follower
(c) Chainman
(d) Surveyor

12. The distance between any two slits of french cross staff is about

(a) 8 cm
(b) 6 cm
(c) 4 cm
(d) 10 cm

13. The process of locating objects with reference to the main chain line

(a) Offsetting
(b) Ranging
(c) Chaining
(d) All the above

14. The symbol Δ is used to denote a _____ in the field book

(a) Survey Line
(b) Main Station
(c) Peg interval
(d) Centre Line

15. The box of prismatic compass is made of

(a) Brass
(b) Copper
(c) Nickel
(d) Silver

16. The first temporary adjustment to be done after setting up the plane table at any station will be

(a) Centering
(b) Leveling
(c) Centering and leveling done simultaneously
(d) Orientation and leveling done simultaneously

17. The R.L. of a point on the surface of the ground is known as

(a) Bench mark
(b) T.B.M.
(c) Datum
(d) Spot Level

18. Plotting of inaccessible points on a plane table is done by

(a) Intersection
(b) Resection
(c) Traversing
(d) Radiation

19. When a magnetic bearing of the sun at noon is 185°20' the magnetic declination will be

(a) 5°20' East
(b) 174°40' West
(c) 174°40' East
(d) 5°20' West

20. The instrument which is used in plane tabling for obtaining horizontal and vertical distances directly without resorting to chaining is known as

(a) Plane alidade
(b) Telescopic alidade
(c) Plumbing fork
(d) Fiducial edge

21. The horizontal distance between any two adjacent contours is termed as

(a) Horizontal interval
(b) Contour interval
(c) horizontal equivalent
(d) None of these

22. Least count of transit theodolite is

(a) 5"
(b) 10"
(c) 20"
(d) 60"

23. The minimum vertical distance between low and medium voltage lines and buildings as per building bye-laws

(a) 2.4 m
(b) 1.5 m
(c) 3 m
(d) 3.5 m

24. If the fore bearing of a line is 33° it's back bearing is _____

(a) 57°
(b) 213°
(c) 147°
(d) 327°

25. The technique of estimating or determining the fair price or value of a property is known as

(a) Planning
(b) Rent fixation
(c) Taxation
(d) Valuation

26. An overcrowded, poverty-stricken area having inadequate open space and unhealthy constructions

(a) Street
(b) City
(c) Capital
(d) Slums

27. The weight per meter of 16mm diameter bar is

(a) 1.58 kg
(b) 0.89 kg
(c) 0.617 kg
(d) 2.46 kg

28. The estimate prepared on the basis of plinth area multiplied by the height of building is

(a) Detailed estimate
(b) Cubical method
(c) Scheduled of rates
(d) Plinth are rate

29. The No. of sides of polygon are limited to

(a) 3 to 1024
(b) 5 to 1320
(c) 4 to 5620
(d) None of these

30. Slenderness ration of an axial compression member is the ratio of effective length to the

(a) Least lateral dimension
(b) Average lateral dimension
(c) Lateral dimension
(d) Any of the above

31. The couple of two unlike parallel forces produce a

(a) Linear motion
(b) Curvilinear motion
(c) Relative motion
(d) Rotatory motion

32. The centre of gravity of a semicircle of radius R from its base measured along the vertical axis is

(a) 3/8R
(b) 4R/3∏
(c) Zero
(d) 1/3R

33. The centre of gravity of a solid circular cone, divides the axis in the ratio

(a) 4:1
(b) 3:2
(c) 1:4
(d) 1:1

34. The polar moment of inertia of a square lamina with side 'A' is equal to

(a) A4/12
(b) A4/8
(c) A6/6
(d) A4/6

35. The maximum frictional force at the time of impending motion is called

(a) Dry friction
(b) Static Friction
(c) Kinetic friction
(d) Limiting friction

36. The coefficient of friction is the tan value of

(a) Cone of friction
(b) Angle of repose
(c) Angle of friction
(d) Angle of plane

37. The property of material to resist penetration or indentation is called

(a) Toughness
(b) Brittleness
(c) Hardness
(d) Stiffness

38. If n is the number of members in a frame and j is the number of joints, then a frame with n>2j-3 is called

(a) redundant frame
(b) deficient frame
(c) perfect frame
(d) none of these

39. The static friction

(a) is independent of the area of contact, between the two surfaces
(b) Bears a constant ratio to the normal reaction between the two surface
(c) Always acts in a direction, opposite to that in which the body tends to move
(d) all the above

40. If the resultant of two equal forces has the same magnitude as either of the forces, then the angle between the two forces is

(a) 30°
(b) 60°
(c) 90°
(d) 120°

41. The resultant of the two forces P and Q is R. If Q is doubled, the new resultant is perpendicular to P. Then

(a) P = Q
(b) Q = R
(c) Q = 2R
(d) none of these

42. The total energy possessed by a system of moving bodies

(a) is minimum in the start and maximum at the end
(b) is constant at every instant
(c) varies from point to point
(d) is maximum in the start and minimum at the end

43. National highway act, 1956 came into force from

(a) 15th April 1957
(b) 15th April 1958
(c) 15th April 1960
(d) 15th April 1961

44. Speed regulation on a road is decided on the basis of _____ percentile cumulative frequency

(a) 50
(b) 85
(c) 75
(d) 80

45. The circumferential area constructed around an urban area to enable free flow of traffic is called

(a) Loop road
(b) Ring road
(c) Bypass road
(d) Radial road

46. In Nagpur road conference the minimum width of village road was recommended as:

(a) 3.81m
(b) 9m
(c) 2.45m
(d) 8m

47. National highways situated with in any municipal areas are called

(a) Collector street
(b) sub-arterial street
(c) city roads
(d) local street

48. As per IRC the maximum permissible axle load is

(a) 8.165 kg/cm
(b) 8.165 tonnes
(c) 8.165 kg/m
(d) 8.165 tonnes/m2

49. The stopping site distance depends on

(a) Reaction time
(b) braking time
(c) speed of vehicle
(d) all of these

50. The road length per 100 square kms in India

(a) 10-15 km
(b) 35-50 km
(c) 100-150 km
(d) 200-250 km

51. The recommended safe lateral coefficient of friction is

(a) 1.5
(b) 0.15
(c) 1/15
(d) 15

52. Softening point is determined by using _____

(a) Pen sky martens apparatus
(b) Ring and ball apparatus
(c) Softening point apparatus
(d) None of these

53. The top width of road embankment or bottom width of cutting is known as

(a) Embankment width
(b) Formation width
(c) Subgrade
(d) Berm

54. For the movement of vehicles at an intersection of two roads, without any interference, the type of grade separator generally preferred to, is _____

(a) Delta
(b) Trumpet
(c) Diamond interchange
(d) Clover leaf

55. As per recommendations of I.R.C., traffic volume study is carried out for rural roads for 7 days continuously during

(a) Harvesting
(b) Lean season
(c) Harvesting and Lean season
(d) None of these

56. The basic formula for determination of pavement thickness was first suggested by

(a) Spangler
(b) Picket
(c) Kelly
(d) Gold beck

57. The value of bulk modulus of a fluid is required to determine

(a) Reynold's number
(b) Froude's number
(c) Mach number
(d) Euler's number

58. The pressure at a point 4 m below the free surface of water

(a) 19.24 kPa
(b) 29.24 kPa
(c) 39.24 kPa
(d) 49.24 kPa

59. The coefficient of discharge for an external mouthpiece depends upon

(a) velocity of liquid
(b) pressure of liquid
(c) area of mouthpiece
(d) length of mouthpiece

60. The discharge over a rectangular notch is

(a) inversely proportional to H3/2
(b) directly proportional to H3/2
(c) inversely proportional to H5/2
(d) directly proportional to 5/2

61. In a short cylindrical external mouthpiece, the vena contracta occurs at a distance _____ the diameter of the orifice from the outlet of orifice.

(a) Equal to
(b) one-forth
(c) one-third
(d) one-half

62. The velocity corresponding to Reynold's number of 2000 is called

(a) sub-sonic energy
(b) super-sonic velocity
(c) Lower critical velocity
(d) higher critical velocity

63. The power transmitted through the pipe is maximum when the head lost due to friction is equal to

(a) one-fourth of the total supply head
(b) one-third of the total supply head
(c) one-half of the total supply head
(d) two-third of the total supply head

64. The buoyancy depends upon the

(a) Weight of the liquid displaced
(b) pressure with which the liquid is displaced
(c) Viscosity of the liquid
(d) compressibility of the liquid

65. The specific weight of sea water is _____ that of pure water

(a) Same as
(b) less than
(c) more than
(d) varies with locations

66. If a body floating in a liquid occupies a new position and remains at rest in this new position, when given a small angular displacement, the body is said to be in _____ equilibrium.

(a) Neutral
(b) Stable
(c) Unstable
(d) Metacentric

67. The loss of head at entrance in a pipe is (where v=Velocity of liquid in the pipe)

(a) v2/2g
(b) 0.5v2/2g
(c) 0.375v2/2g
(d) 0.75v2/2g

68. The minimum recommended diameter of sewers, is

(a) 15 cm
(b) 5 cm
(c) 10 cm
(d) 20 cm

69. If D is the diameter of upper circular portion, the overall depth of a standard egg shaped section, is

(a) 1.5 D
(b) 2 D
(c) D
(d) 1.25 D

70. The curve generated by a point on the circumference of a circle rolling along a straight line is called

(a) Cycloid
(b) Spiral
(c) Trochoid
(d) Evolute

71. The permeable formations having structures which permit appreciable quantity of water to move through them under ordinary field conditions is called

(a) Aquicludes
(b) Aquifers
(c) Free weir
(d) None of these

72. The phenomenon of evaporation from water surface, soil and plant is generally known as

(a) Gravity
(b) Evaporation
(c) Precipitation
(d) Transpiration

73. For standing crops in undulating sandy fields the best method of irrigation is

(a) Well
(b) Sprinkler
(c) Lift irrigation
(d) Drains

74. _____ is defined as the point through which the body starts oscillating when it is tilted

(a) Centre of buoyancy
(b) metacentre
(c) centre of gravity
(d) centre of pressure

75. The Reynold's number in a flow is observed to be 3000. Which type of flow is this

(a) Laminar flow
(b) turbulent flow
(c) transitional flow
(d) none of these

76. Genera value of Cd is observed to be

(a) 0.98
(b) 0.64
(c) 0.85
(d) 0.62

77. In India, the crossing number of passenger turnout is taken as

(a) 6
(b) 8.5
(c) 10
(d) 12

78. The R.L. of a point on the surface of the ground is known as

(a) Bench mark
(b) T.B.M.
(c) Datum
(d) Spot Level

79. The method of leveling in which heights of mountain are found by observing the temperature at which the water boils is known as

(a) Barometric leveling
(b) Reciprocal leveling
(c) Longitudinal leveling
(d) Hypsometry

80. Who won 2014 Nobel prize for literature

(a) Patric Modiyana
(b) William merner
(c) Shuji Nakamura
(d) malala Yousafzai

81. Author of Pracheena malayalam

(a) Bhramanandha Sivayogi
(b) Sreenarayana Guru
(c) Chattambi Swamikal
(d) Vagbhadanandhan

82. First secretary of SNDP

(a) Dr. Palppu
(b) Sreenarayana Guru
(c) Kumaranashan
(d) Vagbhadanandhan

83. Jaykar committee was formed in _____

(a) 1927
(b) 1928
(c) 1929
(d) 1934

84. The venue of 2022 World Cup football

(a) South Africa
(b) Brazil
(c) Khaddar
(d) Russia

85. "I follow the Mahathma" was written by

(a) K.M. Munshi
(b) R.K. Narayan
(c) Kiran Desai
(d) Salim Ali

86. When was the famous renaissance leader Chattampi Swami born

(a) 1854 Aug 25
(b) 1853 Aug 24
(c) 1854 Sep 25
(d) 1853 Aug 25

87. Who wrote the book moksha pradeepam

(a) Chattampi Swami
(b) Vagbhadanandan
(c) Brahmananda Sivayogi
(d) Thycadu Ayya

88. Muppiri is famous for

(a) Fishing
(b) Coir products
(c) Handloom
(d) Hill Station

89. Who is the social reformer who desired to establish 'Dharmayugam' instead of 'Kaliyugam'

(a) Pandit Karuppan
(b) Ayya Vaikunda
(c) Brahmananda Sivayogi
(d) Thycadu Ayya

90. Swadeshabhimani daily is established by a famous social reformer. Who is the person

(a) Vagbhatanandan
(b) Vakkam Moulavi
(c) M.R.B. Bhattathirippad
(d) K. Kelappan

91. Sahodaran Ayyappan launched 'Mishrabhojanam' programme at Cherayi in

(a) 1940
(b) 1941
(c) 1942
(d) 1943

92. In which year Sadhujana Paripalana Sangam became 'Pulaya Mahasabha'?

(a) 1947
(b) 1954
(c) 1958
(d) 1938

93. Name the leader of renaissance who was ousted from his community from the reason of attending the Ahamedabad Congress Session of 1921

(a) K Kelappan
(b) VT Bhattathirippad
(c) EMS Namboothirippad
(d) Sanjayan

94. The place where Ayyankali started a 'Kudippallikkoodam' for the depressed classes, which invited the anger of the upper castes?

(a) Perunna
(b) Venganur
(c) Changanassery
(d) Vaikom

95. Who became the editor of 'Yukthivadi' magazine in 1928?

(a) Vakkom Abdul Khader Moulavi
(b) Swadeshabhimani Ramakrishna Pillai
(c) Kumaranasan
(d) Sahodaran Ayyapan

96. Name the leader related to the 'Muthukulam Speech' in 1947.

(a) Mannath padmanabhan
(b) AK Gopalan
(c) K Kelappan
(d) R Sankar

97. The date of Temple Entry Proclamation in Travancore?

(a) 14th Novemeber 1936
(b) 12th October 1936
(c) 12th December 1930
(d) 12th November 1936

98. Who was the official editor of 'Vivekodayam' when it was started in 1904?

(a) Sardar KM Panikar
(b) Kumaranasan
(c) Swadeshabhimani Ramakrishna Pillai
(d) M. Govindan

99. The first statue of Sree Narayana Guru was unveild at?

(a) Thalassery
(b) Sivagiri
(c) Palayam
(d) Santhigiri

100. The first statue of Sree Narayana Guru was unveild at?

(a) Thalassery
(b) Sivagiri
(c) Palayam
(d) Santhigiri

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Model Question Paper - Draftsman, Overseer - Civil Model Question Paper - Draftsman, Overseer - Civil Reviewed by Kerala PSC GK on 11:40 PM Rating: 5

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